Sunday, October 17th, 2010 at
6:24 am
A lien was recently [July, 2007] placed by the IRS against a piece of Real Estate in New York that is owned by an Estate that I am the Executor of.
How long do I have from the time the lien was placed by the IRS to the time that the IRS forces the property for sale or auction? If the property is forced for sale or auction by the IRS is there some type of redemption period that I have?
The Estate does not want me to sell the Real Estate.
The estate will be able to pay the IRS what it owes within three months. Do I have that much time before the property is placed to auction or sale?
VanEmburgh keeps eye on bank loans: The whole commercial real estate market just came to a halt around this countr… http://bit.ly/aHiDMs
Saturday, September 25th, 2010 at
6:13 am
I am going to bid on a house at foreclosure and it has a 1st mortgage of $ 280K and a second of $ 70K. The lender on the first two mortgages is Decision One Mortgage. The lender at foreclosure is Countrywide. Does this mean that if I buy this house at foreclosure that I will own additional money to the second mortgage or just the first mortgage and back taxes?
Mortgage Loan Officer – LAS VEGAS, NV – Bank of America Corp. (Las Vegas, NV) http://bit.ly/anG8Nl #Jobs #TweetMyJOBS
Tuesday, February 10th, 2009 at
1:48 pm
The second mortgage will come after the owners or be able to put something (other than a mortgage) in the credit as a sentence? Is beer to garnish wages or do something crazy like that in the future? The reason for two loans was a first and a second (100% of the loan) was used to purchase the house. The value is reduced and the exclusion of auction will be sufficient only to cover the first mortgage and a portion of the second. If you could place any websites that show this type of legislation would be appreciated. Thank you. Oh, and real examples to be big. I have heard many people say that it can come later, but which have actually been closed I’ve yet to hear one of them tells me a story of true horror. This may be because many owners of second hand used the fear some people to pay them money and save some of their losses. coragryph note the 2nd was used as the purchase price, so it was not a 2nd mortgage that was “removed”. Besides, you’ve heard of this happening, or just study? That’s what I’m discovering that most lenders do not follow that, just as getting nothing after all the money to fight legal and the majority of individuals may present to avoid BK.
Wednesday, February 4th, 2009 at
12:35 pm
I’m going to bid on a house in foreclosure and has a mortgage of $ 1 and a second $ 70K to 280K. The mortgage lender of the first two is Decision One Mortgage. The lender is the exclusion in the country. Does this mean that if I buy this house in a mortgage that more money will be the owner of the second mortgage or just the first mortgage and back taxes?
